I don't quite see how "the French won" pre WW1. The way I see it is the French lost at Waterloo 100 years earlier and then lost again against Prussia in 1870 and meanwhile the British ruled rather more of the world than they could actually afford to, despite industrialization giving them a surplus of males that needed to be employed somewhere
I don't quite see how "the French won" pre WW1. The way I see it is the French lost at Waterloo 100 years earlier and then lost again against Prussia in 1870 and meanwhile the British ruled rather more of the world than they could actually afford to, despite industrialization giving them a surplus of males that needed to be employed somewhere